Where in the Bible do you find a basis for calling committed, loving same-sex relations (not “lifestyle,” as if it”s some sort of willy-nilly choice) sinful? (Remember, I know the passages you think you have in your favor.)

Actually, a better way of framing the issue is this: what are the hermeneutical presuppositions that allow you to extrapolate from what are basically two or three highly ambiguous, historically- conditioned verses to a social phenomenon that is a relatively recent development within world history (i.e., the biblical writers had no notion of “homosexuality” or “same-sex orientation”)?

Or put it this way: on what basis do you think the Bible provides us with a “biblical worldview” about how a person should live?